Skip to main content
added 1 character in body
Source Link
user21574
user21574

In the following paper , The Kahler-Ricci flow on surfaces of positive Kodaira dimension (Sung and Tian) in page 621, I am trying to understand the proof of part 1 of Lemma 3.4.

In the part 1 of proof of inequality the authors first use of logarithmic transformation due to Kodaira. After they directly say

"Therefore $ω_{SF}$ is a smooth family of Ricci-flat metrics over $B$". I can not see this fact from Logarithmic transformation. Can you explain more?

In the first part of proof they define $\tilde Y=\mathbb C\times \tilde B/L$, BUT I think we must define $\tilde Y=\mathbb C\times B/L$. For instance see this paper

In final the strategy of proof is not clear for me. I need to more details.

In the following paper , The Kahler-Ricci flow on surfaces of positive Kodaira dimension (Sung and Tian) in page 621, I am trying to understand the proof of part 1 of Lemma 3.4.

In the part 1 of proof of inequality the authors first use of logarithmic transformation due to Kodaira. After they directly say

"Therefore $ω_{SF}$ is a smooth family of Ricci-flat metrics over $B$". I can not see this fact from Logarithmic transformation. Can you explain more?

In the first part of proof they define $\tilde Y=\mathbb C\times \tilde B/L$, BUT I think we must define $\tilde Y=\mathbb C\times B/L$. For instance see this paper

In final the strategy of proof is not clear for me. I need to more details

In the following paper , The Kahler-Ricci flow on surfaces of positive Kodaira dimension (Sung and Tian) in page 621, I am trying to understand the proof of part 1 of Lemma 3.4.

In the part 1 of proof of inequality the authors first use of logarithmic transformation due to Kodaira. After they directly say

"Therefore $ω_{SF}$ is a smooth family of Ricci-flat metrics over $B$". I can not see this fact from Logarithmic transformation. Can you explain more?

In the first part of proof they define $\tilde Y=\mathbb C\times \tilde B/L$, BUT I think we must define $\tilde Y=\mathbb C\times B/L$. For instance see this paper

In final the strategy of proof is not clear for me. I need to more details.

added 39 characters in body
Source Link
user21574
user21574

In the following paper , The Kahler-Ricci flow on surfaces of positive Kodaira dimension (Sung and Tian) in page 621, I am trying to understand the proof of part 1 of Lemma 3.4.

In the part 1 of proof of inequality the authors first use of logarithmic transformation due to Kodaira. After they directly say

"Therefore $ω_{SF}$ is a smooth family of Ricci-flat metrics over $B$". I can not see this fact from Logarithmic transformation. Can you explain for memore?

In the first part of proof they define $\tilde Y=\mathbb C\times \tilde B/L$, BUT I think we must define $\tilde Y=\mathbb C\times B/L$. For instance see this paper

In final the strategy of proof is not clear for me. I need to more details

In the following paper , The Kahler-Ricci flow on surfaces of positive Kodaira dimension (Sung and Tian) in page 621, I am trying to understand the proof of part 1 of Lemma 3.4.

In the part 1 of proof of inequality the authors first use of logarithmic transformation due to Kodaira. After they say

"Therefore $ω_{SF}$ is a smooth family of Ricci-flat metrics over $B$". I can not see this fact. Can you explain for me?

In the first part of proof they define $\tilde Y=\mathbb C\times \tilde B/L$, BUT I think we must define $\tilde Y=\mathbb C\times B/L$. For instance see this paper

In final the strategy of proof is not clear for me. I need to more details

In the following paper , The Kahler-Ricci flow on surfaces of positive Kodaira dimension (Sung and Tian) in page 621, I am trying to understand the proof of part 1 of Lemma 3.4.

In the part 1 of proof of inequality the authors first use of logarithmic transformation due to Kodaira. After they directly say

"Therefore $ω_{SF}$ is a smooth family of Ricci-flat metrics over $B$". I can not see this fact from Logarithmic transformation. Can you explain more?

In the first part of proof they define $\tilde Y=\mathbb C\times \tilde B/L$, BUT I think we must define $\tilde Y=\mathbb C\times B/L$. For instance see this paper

In final the strategy of proof is not clear for me. I need to more details

added 1 character in body
Source Link
user21574
user21574

In the following paper , The Kahler-Ricci flow on surfaces of positive Kodaira dimension (Sung and Tian) in page 621, I am trying to understand the proof of part 1 of Lemma 3.4.

In the part 1 of proof of inequality the authors first use of logarithmic transformation due to Kodaira. After they say

"Therefore $ω_{SF}$ is a smoothsmooth family of Ricci-flat metrics over $B$over $B$". I can not see this fact. Can you explain for me?

In the first part of proof they define $\tilde Y=\mathbb C\times \tilde B/L$, BUT I think we must define $\tilde Y=\mathbb C\times B/L$. For instance see this paper

In final Thethe strategy of proof is not clear for me. I need to more details

In the following paper , The Kahler-Ricci flow on surfaces of positive Kodaira dimension (Sung and Tian) in page 621, I am trying to understand the proof of part 1 of Lemma 3.4.

In the part 1 of proof of inequality the authors first use of logarithmic transformation due to Kodaira. After they say

"Therefore $ω_{SF}$ is a smooth family of Ricci-flat metrics over $B$". I can not see this fact.

In the first part of proof they define $\tilde Y=\mathbb C\times \tilde B/L$, BUT I think we must define $\tilde Y=\mathbb C\times B/L$. For instance see this paper

In final The strategy of proof is not clear for me

In the following paper , The Kahler-Ricci flow on surfaces of positive Kodaira dimension (Sung and Tian) in page 621, I am trying to understand the proof of part 1 of Lemma 3.4.

In the part 1 of proof of inequality the authors first use of logarithmic transformation due to Kodaira. After they say

"Therefore $ω_{SF}$ is a smooth family of Ricci-flat metrics over $B$". I can not see this fact. Can you explain for me?

In the first part of proof they define $\tilde Y=\mathbb C\times \tilde B/L$, BUT I think we must define $\tilde Y=\mathbb C\times B/L$. For instance see this paper

In final the strategy of proof is not clear for me. I need to more details

included paper name
Source Link
Igor Rivin
  • 96.4k
  • 11
  • 153
  • 366
Loading
edited title
Link
user21574
user21574
Loading
added 12 characters in body
Source Link
user21574
user21574
Loading
edited body
Source Link
user21574
user21574
Loading
edited tags
Link
user21574
user21574
Loading
added 2 characters in body
Source Link
user21574
user21574
Loading
added 107 characters in body
Source Link
user21574
user21574
Loading
Source Link
user21574
user21574
Loading