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Sep 5, 2014 at 15:12 history edited Ricardo Andrade CC BY-SA 3.0
added top-level tag; minor editing
Sep 5, 2014 at 14:22 vote accept Benji
Sep 5, 2014 at 14:20 answer added Pietro Majer timeline score: 3
Sep 5, 2014 at 14:16 comment added Benji To be explicit, what I mean is that $f$ is jointly continuous in $t$ and $x$.
Sep 5, 2014 at 14:15 comment added Benji That was a typo. It has been fixed.
Sep 5, 2014 at 14:14 history edited Benji CC BY-SA 3.0
edited body
Sep 5, 2014 at 14:13 comment added Emil Jeřábek If $\mathcal C_0$ stands for continuous functions that vanish at infinity, they are all bounded even without further assumptions. If not, you need to clarify the notation.
Sep 5, 2014 at 14:04 history asked Benji CC BY-SA 3.0