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Sep 11, 2014 at 6:48 vote accept 346699
Sep 7, 2014 at 7:05 answer added Vladimir S Matveev timeline score: 5
Sep 6, 2014 at 7:24 history edited 346699 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 5, 2014 at 15:42 answer added Robert Bryant timeline score: 7
Sep 5, 2014 at 12:37 comment added 346699 @RobertBryant No. Maybe my original question is too general, and I'm not sure which assumption will be required. So you can add some assumptions you need to get some results.
Sep 5, 2014 at 12:30 comment added Robert Bryant Also, are you assuming compactness or completeness or anything else global for the initial pseudo-Riemannian structure?
Sep 5, 2014 at 12:27 comment added 346699 @RobertBryant Sorry, I have modified.
Sep 5, 2014 at 12:25 comment added Robert Bryant I see. Most people call these 'pseudo-Riemannian manifolds'. Do you assume that the 'metric' is nowhere degenerate?
Sep 5, 2014 at 12:24 history edited 346699 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 5, 2014 at 12:22 comment added 346699 @RobertBryant the metric is not necessarily positive definite, such as Lorentzian manifold.
Sep 5, 2014 at 12:18 comment added Robert Bryant What you mean by a 'generalized Riemannian manifold'? Do you just mean a 'general Riemannian manifold'?
Sep 5, 2014 at 11:58 history edited 346699 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 5, 2014 at 11:51 history asked 346699 CC BY-SA 3.0