Timeline for Approximating rational values in $]0,1[$ by a sum or difference of unit fractions
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
13 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Nov 9, 2017 at 13:45 | history | edited | Dominic van der Zypen | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
edited title
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| Sep 2, 2014 at 13:04 | vote | accept | Dominic van der Zypen | ||
| Sep 2, 2014 at 12:53 | comment | added | Dominic van der Zypen | That's correct - I put the absolute value signs in the wrong place and edited the post now accordingly. | |
| Sep 2, 2014 at 12:45 | history | edited | Dominic van der Zypen | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
I had the |..| bars for absolute value wrong
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| Aug 29, 2014 at 8:59 | vote | accept | Dominic van der Zypen | ||
| Sep 2, 2014 at 12:49 | |||||
| Aug 28, 2014 at 22:29 | answer | added | Noam D. Elkies | timeline score: 3 | |
| Aug 28, 2014 at 15:57 | comment | added | Fedor Petrov | Something very strange is written. Looks like a misprint. | |
| Aug 28, 2014 at 12:34 | history | edited | Gerald Edgar |
edited tags
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| Aug 28, 2014 at 12:34 | comment | added | Gerald Edgar | This is not what one means by "approximation theory". So I added "diophantine-approximation" ... maybe that's what this is? | |
| Aug 28, 2014 at 9:08 | comment | added | Włodzimierz Holsztyński | As it's now, for $\ u=v=1\ $ the difference is always the smallest (for any real, not just for positive rational numbers). You're possibly thinking about the absolute value of each side of the inequality. But the sums of elements of $U$ form a discrete set. Thus the answer is still NO (again for arbitrary reals). | |
| S Aug 28, 2014 at 8:59 | history | suggested | Daniel Valenzuela | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
grammar corrections
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| Aug 28, 2014 at 8:55 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S Aug 28, 2014 at 8:59 | |||||
| Aug 28, 2014 at 8:47 | history | asked | Dominic van der Zypen | CC BY-SA 3.0 |