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Aug 26, 2014 at 8:36 comment added domotorp The conjecture is false, as if $k\ge 2$ and D is any set of odd numbers, then the density is $\le \frac 12$.
Aug 25, 2014 at 19:52 history edited charles.y.zheng CC BY-SA 3.0
added 7 characters in body
Aug 25, 2014 at 19:50 comment added charles.y.zheng Conjecture: the optimal hitting set takes the form {m(k-1)+1,m(k-1)+2,...,m(k-1)+M,...} where m = min(D) and M = max(D), so the density is M/(m(k-1)+M)
Aug 25, 2014 at 19:33 history edited charles.y.zheng CC BY-SA 3.0
added figure
Aug 25, 2014 at 18:44 comment added domotorp For D={1,2} and k=2 no thinner hitting set can exist, as you need 2 numbers from any 3 consecutive numbers.
Aug 25, 2014 at 18:11 history edited charles.y.zheng CC BY-SA 3.0
Should use term 'hitting set' rather than 'covering'
Aug 25, 2014 at 18:05 history asked charles.y.zheng CC BY-SA 3.0