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Ben Webster
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One crude answer is that passing to derived functors fixes one obstruction to being an equivalence. Any equivalence of abelian categories certainly is exact (i.e. it preserves short exact sequences), though lots of exact functors are not equivalences (for example, think about representations of a group and forgetting the G-action).

What derived functor does is fix this problem in a canonical way; you have to replace short exact sequences with exact triangles, but you get a functor which is your original "up to zeroth order," exact, and uniquely distinguished by these properties.

So, what BMR do is take a functor which is not even exact (and thus obviously not an equivalence), and show that the lack of exactness is "the only problem" for this being an equivalence.

EDIT: Let me just add, from a more philosophical perspective, that derived equivalences are just a lot more common. There are just more of them out in the world. Given an algebra A, Morita equivalences to A are classified essentially by projective generating A-modules, whereas derived Morita equivalences of dg-algebras are in bijection with all objects in the derived category of $A-mod$ which generate (in the sense that nothing has trivial Ext with them): you look at the dg-Ext algebra of the object with itself. If you have an interesting algebra (say, a finite dimensional one of wild representation type), there are a lot more of the latter than the former in a very precise sense. Of course, the vast majority of these are completely uncomputable an tell you nothing, but there are enough of them in the mix to make things interesting.

One crude answer is that passing to derived functors fixes one obstruction to being an equivalence. Any equivalence of abelian categories certainly is exact (i.e. it preserves short exact sequences), though lots of exact functors are not equivalences (for example, think about representations of a group and forgetting the G-action).

What derived functor does is fix this problem in a canonical way; you have to replace short exact sequences with exact triangles, but you get a functor which is your original "up to zeroth order," exact, and uniquely distinguished by these properties.

So, what BMR do is take a functor which is not even exact (and thus obviously not an equivalence), and show that the lack of exactness is "the only problem" for this being an equivalence.

One crude answer is that passing to derived functors fixes one obstruction to being an equivalence. Any equivalence of abelian categories certainly is exact (i.e. it preserves short exact sequences), though lots of exact functors are not equivalences (for example, think about representations of a group and forgetting the G-action).

What derived functor does is fix this problem in a canonical way; you have to replace short exact sequences with exact triangles, but you get a functor which is your original "up to zeroth order," exact, and uniquely distinguished by these properties.

So, what BMR do is take a functor which is not even exact (and thus obviously not an equivalence), and show that the lack of exactness is "the only problem" for this being an equivalence.

EDIT: Let me just add, from a more philosophical perspective, that derived equivalences are just a lot more common. There are just more of them out in the world. Given an algebra A, Morita equivalences to A are classified essentially by projective generating A-modules, whereas derived Morita equivalences of dg-algebras are in bijection with all objects in the derived category of $A-mod$ which generate (in the sense that nothing has trivial Ext with them): you look at the dg-Ext algebra of the object with itself. If you have an interesting algebra (say, a finite dimensional one of wild representation type), there are a lot more of the latter than the former in a very precise sense. Of course, the vast majority of these are completely uncomputable an tell you nothing, but there are enough of them in the mix to make things interesting.

Source Link
Ben Webster
  • 44.7k
  • 12
  • 126
  • 260

One crude answer is that passing to derived functors fixes one obstruction to being an equivalence. Any equivalence of abelian categories certainly is exact (i.e. it preserves short exact sequences), though lots of exact functors are not equivalences (for example, think about representations of a group and forgetting the G-action).

What derived functor does is fix this problem in a canonical way; you have to replace short exact sequences with exact triangles, but you get a functor which is your original "up to zeroth order," exact, and uniquely distinguished by these properties.

So, what BMR do is take a functor which is not even exact (and thus obviously not an equivalence), and show that the lack of exactness is "the only problem" for this being an equivalence.