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Jul 8, 2015 at 18:24 history edited Paul Siegel CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 14, 2014 at 8:33 vote accept Chandler
Sep 30, 2014 at 12:13 vote accept Chandler
Oct 14, 2014 at 8:33
Sep 30, 2014 at 12:13 vote accept Chandler
Sep 30, 2014 at 12:13
Aug 20, 2014 at 5:06 comment added Dan Ramras Oh, and a reference for the bijection in the above answer is the Appendix to Atiyah's book K-theory.
Aug 20, 2014 at 5:02 comment added Dan Ramras (cont'd) So $\pi_1 (\mathcal{F}_0) = 1$ (for this, it's enough to check that each loop is (unbased) nullhomotopic, which follows from $[S^1, \mathcal{F}_0] = \widetilde{K} (S^1) = 0$) and now $\pi_n (\mathcal{F}) = \pi_n (\mathcal{F}_0) = \langle S^n, \mathcal{F}_0 \rangle = [S^n, \mathcal{F}_0] = \widetilde{K}(S^n)$. Here $\langle , \rangle$ means based homotopy classes of maps, which is the same as unbased homotopy classes when the range is simply connected.
Aug 20, 2014 at 4:59 comment added Dan Ramras Hi Paul, Maybe I'm missing something, but I think that $\pi_n (\mathcal{F})$ is isomorphic to the reduced groups $\widetilde{K} (S^n)$, not $K(S^n)$. Unreduced K-theory classifies (unbased) homotopy classes of (unbased) maps out of X, but for homotopy groups we're interested in based maps and based homotopy. Letting $\mathcal{F}_0$ denote the index 0 Fredholm operators (which form one connected component of $\mathcal{F}$), the bijection above restricts to $[X, \mathcal{F}_0] \cong \widetilde{K} (X)$.
Aug 19, 2014 at 17:38 comment added Paul Siegel That's correct.
Aug 19, 2014 at 17:20 comment added Chandler Thanks for the answer. So I can use the $K_0$-groups of $S^n$?
Aug 19, 2014 at 17:16 history answered Paul Siegel CC BY-SA 3.0