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S Jul 8, 2015 at 9:31 history suggested Ali Taghavi
I add a tag
Jul 8, 2015 at 9:21 review Suggested edits
S Jul 8, 2015 at 9:31
Oct 14, 2014 at 8:33 vote accept Chandler
Oct 14, 2014 at 8:33 vote accept Chandler
Oct 14, 2014 at 8:33
Oct 12, 2014 at 23:28 comment added Dan Ramras My answer below is essentially a correction to the accepted answer, which seems to be saying that $\pi_n (\mathcal{F})$ is the unreduced complex K-theory of the sphere $S^n$. For $n=0$ this would give $\pi_0 (\mathcal{F}) = K(S^0) = \mathbb{Z} \oplus \mathbb{Z}$, in contradiction with the index theorem. (Maybe the issue is just notational, but I've never seen $K(X)$ used to mean reduced K-theory.) Is something wrong with my answer or my comments on the accepted answer? It would be nice to have a clear answer to the question. Maybe a tilde should just be added to Paul Siegel's answer?
Sep 30, 2014 at 12:13 vote accept Chandler
Oct 14, 2014 at 8:33
Sep 30, 2014 at 12:13 vote accept Chandler
Sep 30, 2014 at 12:13
Aug 22, 2014 at 17:28 answer added Dan Ramras timeline score: 11
Aug 19, 2014 at 17:16 answer added Paul Siegel timeline score: 21
Aug 19, 2014 at 16:08 history asked Chandler CC BY-SA 3.0