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Aug 14, 2014 at 21:08 comment added David E Speyer One strategy to prove that $Y$ is quasi-affine would be to show that $Y \to \mathrm{Spec}(A_0)$ is etale and of generic degree $1$, where $A_0$ is the ring of invariant functions. I think that should force an open immersion when $Y$ is separated, while having a good chance of being true even when $Y$ isn't.
Aug 14, 2014 at 19:43 comment added Torsten Wedhorn @David: Thank you very much for the example and the references. Of course, I will accept your answer. But I would like to wait a little hoping to attract more people to the modified question.
Aug 14, 2014 at 19:38 comment added Torsten Wedhorn @Alexander: In my situation I do know a priori that $Y$ is separated. Hence I would be very grateful if you could elaborate.
Aug 14, 2014 at 19:06 comment added Alexander Braverman Actually, I suspect that the answer might be yes, if you assume that $Y$ is separated.
Aug 14, 2014 at 17:23 history edited David E Speyer CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 14, 2014 at 17:10 history answered David E Speyer CC BY-SA 3.0