Let $A$ be a $C^*$-algebra, and $R:A\to A$ its right multilplier. Is it true that $$ \exists b\in A\quad \forall a\in A \quad R(a)b=a\qquad $$ implies $A$ is unital. I know this is true if A is a weak$^*$ dense ideal of $W^*$-algebra. But what about the general case?

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Let $A$ be a $C^*$-algebra, and $R:A\to A$ its right multilplier. Is it true that $$ \exists b\in A\quad \forall a\in A \quad R(a)b=a\qquad $$ implies $A$ is unital. I know this is true if A is a weak$^*$ dense ideal of $W^*$-algebra. But what about the general case?

This question on MSE.

Let $A$ be a $C^*$-algebra, and $R:A\to A$ its right multilplier. Is it true that $$ \exists b\in A\quad \forall a\in A \quad R(a)b=a\qquad $$ implies $A$ is unital. I know this is true if A is a weak$^*$ dense ideal of $W^*$-algebra. But what about the general case?

Let $A$ be a $C^*$-algebra, and $R:A\to A$ its right multilplier. Is it true that $$ \exists b\in A\quad \forall a\in A \quad R(a)b=a\qquad $$ implies $A$ is unital. I know this is true if A is a weak$^*$ dense ideal of $W^*$-algebra. But what about the general case?

This question on MSE.