(By the disintegration theorem, such a stochastic kernel exists, and is unique modulo $\rho$-null sets.)
Now it is well-known that we do not necessarily have that for $\rho$-almost every $x \in X$, for all $E \in \mathcal{E}$, $\rho_x^\mathcal{E}(E)=\mathbf{1}_E(x)$. (For counterexamples, see the examples of "maximally improper rcd's" in the paper "Improper Regular Conditional Distributions" linked to by Jochen below.)
Nonetheless, I am still very keen to know the answer to the following:
ObviouslySome important remarks:
The disintegration theorem guarantees that a rcd of $\rho$ with respect to $\mathcal{E}$ exists and is unique modulo $\rho$-null sets.
So of course (at least if we assume AC) there exists a family $(\rho_{x,y})_{x,y \in X}$ satisfying (1),; but doesthe question is whether there necessarily existexists a family $(\rho_{x,y})_{x,y \in X}$ satisfying both (1) and (2)?.
It is worth emphasising: we do not necessarily have that for $\rho$-almost every $x \in X$, for all $E \in \mathcal{E}$, $\rho_x^\mathcal{E}(E)=\mathbf{1}_E(x)$. (For counterexamples, see the examples of "maximally improper rcd's" in the paper "Improper Regular Conditional Distributions" linked to by Jochen below.)