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Dec 31, 2019 at 20:39 vote accept Bob
Feb 27, 2017 at 23:49 comment added ಠ_ಠ Is the category of $\mathsf{InvAdj}$ canonically a 2-category? Seems like it should be, right?
Aug 18, 2014 at 11:11 comment added Chris Heunen The zero object is the single-element orthocomplemented lattice $\{0=1\}$, see p8 of the first paper mentioned. Notice morphisms are (pairs of) antitone functions. Incidentally, an opclassifier is an object 2 with a natural isomorphism between kernels (subobjects) of an object $X$ and morphisms $2 \to X$ (see Corollary 3.11).
Aug 11, 2014 at 20:25 comment added Bob You wrote that "the full subcategory of (ortho)posets and Galois connections has [...] dagger biproducts". But biproducts only make sense in a category with zero object. And, in this case, such zero object would be a poset from/to which there is a Galois connection to/from any other poset. But such poset does not exist. Therefore either the result you claim is wrong or, most probably, there is a misundertanding. Please clarify.
Aug 9, 2014 at 13:45 history answered Chris Heunen CC BY-SA 3.0