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Aug 9, 2014 at 6:43 comment added Craig thanks for the comments. @fedja. I am not sure in exactly what sense I want to understand it. But in whatever way we make sense of it I want it to hold pointwise (not sure if I am even asking a well defined question).
Aug 9, 2014 at 2:05 comment added Christian Remling Convolving with this kernel is the same as multiplying the Fourier transform by $|k|^{-2}$, which gives a pretty good general idea of what smoothness to expect for what $f$'s (here $\widehat{f}\in L^2$ is what you know about the decay of $\widehat{f}$).
Aug 9, 2014 at 1:02 comment added fedja It is always true in the sense of generalized functions but then it is trivial because you can pass all the convolutions and differentiations on the $C_0^\infty$ mollifier. If you want it pointwise, you have to tell in exactly what sense you want to understand the Laplacian in this equation.
Aug 8, 2014 at 22:24 history asked Craig CC BY-SA 3.0