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Aug 7, 2014 at 14:10 comment added Donu Arapura OK, I see…………..
Aug 7, 2014 at 14:00 comment added user5117 @DonuArapura: I think one can prove that $f_*$ is surjective by elementary means; all you need to do is, given a curve in $X$, find a 1-cycle mapping finitely to that curve via $f$. In particular there's no need to talk about $f^*$. Am I being too simple-minded?
Aug 7, 2014 at 13:27 comment added Donu Arapura DCV: but this begs the question what is $f^*$ on $N_1$? I think you need some form of duality here.
Aug 7, 2014 at 11:58 comment added Davide Cesare Veniani One can define $f_*$ on $N_1(X)$, the (real) vector space of 1-cycles up to numerical equivalence, which is finite-dimensional. Surjectivity then implies injectivity.
Aug 7, 2014 at 11:57 vote accept Davide Cesare Veniani
Aug 7, 2014 at 10:53 comment added Donu Arapura Since you're using $f_*$, you need to assume that $X$ is smooth, or perhaps use intersection homology.
Aug 7, 2014 at 10:23 history answered abx CC BY-SA 3.0