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Aug 23, 2016 at 15:00 vote accept Julien Bernard
Aug 7, 2014 at 7:34 comment added Julien Bernard Thank you Jaap Eldering. It did not see before that a constant curve could be considered as a degenerate geodesic curve.
Aug 6, 2014 at 16:52 history edited Jaap Eldering CC BY-SA 3.0
Explain in more detail geodesic flow, and it being well-defined at origin.
Aug 6, 2014 at 16:45 comment added Jaap Eldering @Julien: Why not? The ODE in local coordinates is perfectly well-defined, also for $0 \in T_p M$. Actually, the solution is immediately seen to be the constant curve, or point, $(p,0) \in T M$, hence $\exp_p(0) = p$.
Aug 6, 2014 at 16:23 comment added Julien Bernard Please, cf. my last answer to Thomas Rot. I think that this argument is correct for every vector in Tp, except the zero vector. Because you cannot write a geodesic equation with zero as initial condition for the tangent vector.
Aug 6, 2014 at 15:44 history answered Jaap Eldering CC BY-SA 3.0