Timeline for Two-to-one continuous mapping from R² to R²
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
4 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Mar 10, 2010 at 13:54 | history | edited | Pete L. Clark | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
added 268 characters in body
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| Mar 10, 2010 at 13:52 | comment | added | Pete L. Clark | @Petya: yes, you're right. The review I quoted above doesn't give a careful definition of what a 2:1 function is, so I think that what I said above was actually correct: it does seem, from reading the review, that the answer is yes. But I agree, the question is not fully answered yet. | |
| Mar 10, 2010 at 13:43 | comment | added | Petya | Pete, the theorem claims that there is a topological space $Y$ and 2-to-1 mapping $E^n$ to $Y$. I am not sure that one can take $Y\subset E^n$. | |
| Mar 10, 2010 at 13:37 | history | answered | Pete L. Clark | CC BY-SA 2.5 |