Timeline for When did coordinate plane "as we know it" come into play?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jul 29, 2014 at 22:12 | comment | added | Amir Asghari | @ChristianRemling sure, I've just mentioned Pell (or better to say Brouncker) story as a reminder of the often complexity of "for a reason" part of your comment. Though, Descartes famously regarded negatives as "false". Thus, it would be safe to claim that Cartesian coordinates "as we know it" is not that same as Descartes himself knew it | |
| Jul 29, 2014 at 21:33 | comment | added | Christian Remling | As I wrote, Descartes (with some pride) reports on this the Treatise, so this is not a case of a mistaken identity. | |
| Jul 28, 2014 at 22:06 | comment | added | Amir Asghari | @ChristianRemling Just to remind you that Pell's equation is called as such simply because Euler confused Brouncker with Pell! :) | |
| Jul 28, 2014 at 9:52 | answer | added | Charles Matthews | timeline score: 1 | |
| Jul 28, 2014 at 1:27 | answer | added | John Stillwell | timeline score: 5 | |
| Jul 28, 2014 at 0:01 | answer | added | Francois Ziegler | timeline score: 10 | |
| Jul 27, 2014 at 23:36 | comment | added | Christian Remling | This doesn't quite answer the question as posed, but I think they are called Cartesian coordinates for a reason (there's a passage in the treatise on this, too). | |
| Jul 27, 2014 at 22:42 | history | asked | Amir Asghari | CC BY-SA 3.0 |