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Timeline for Example of linearization for GIT

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

15 events
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Jul 22, 2014 at 12:43 comment added Giulio As varieties, they are both isomorphic to $\mathbb{P}^n$. I think the group acting on $Proj \, Sym \,V$ is $SL(V^{\vee})$ rather than $SL(V)$.
Jul 22, 2014 at 12:04 comment added Sasha When $\dim V > 2$ projective spaces ${\mathbb{P}}V$ and ${\mathbb{P}}V^\vee$ are not isomorphisc (just because representations $V$ and $V^\vee$ are not isomorphic).
Jul 22, 2014 at 11:28 comment added Giulio It is a bit confusing. $\mathbb{P}V$ and $\mathbb{P}V^{\vee}$ are isomorphic; even as polarized varieties with polarization $\mathcal{O}(1)$. But they are NOT isomorphic as $SL(V)$-varieties?? (Moreover, $SL(V)$ does not have characters, so the linearization is unique)
Jul 22, 2014 at 11:20 comment added Giulio So, it depends whether your define $\mathbb{P}V$ as $\Proj Sym(V)$ or $\Proj Sym(V^{\vee})$ ??
Jul 21, 2014 at 21:35 comment added Sasha No! In the first case the answer is $V^\vee$, while in the second it is $V$.
Jul 21, 2014 at 20:48 comment added Giulio I know, but I think the definition of \mathcal{O}(1) changes accordingly. Isn't it?? You should get in both cases the same answer
Jul 21, 2014 at 20:33 comment added Sasha The answer depends on your convention on what $\mathbb{P}V$ is --- it can be either the moduli space of 1-dimensional subspaces in $V$, or the moduli space of 1-dimensional quotient spaces. Both conventions are used, so it is better to specify what do you mean here.
Jul 21, 2014 at 19:23 vote accept Giulio
Jul 21, 2014 at 19:23 vote accept Giulio
Jul 21, 2014 at 19:23
Jul 21, 2014 at 19:23 vote accept Giulio
Jul 21, 2014 at 19:23
Jul 21, 2014 at 19:23 vote accept Giulio
Jul 21, 2014 at 19:23
Jul 21, 2014 at 19:23 vote accept Giulio
Jul 21, 2014 at 19:23
Jul 21, 2014 at 19:07 answer added Pavel Safronov timeline score: 3
Jul 21, 2014 at 19:01 answer added Daniel Loughran timeline score: 1
Jul 21, 2014 at 17:42 history asked Giulio CC BY-SA 3.0