Timeline for Did Cauchy think that uniform and pointwise convergence were equivalent?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Mar 16, 2017 at 15:33 | answer | added | Joël | timeline score: 4 | |
| Jun 16, 2016 at 14:14 | comment | added | Mikhail Katz | @StevenGubkin, indeed uniform convergence is equivalent to a certain pointwise condition (in the extended domain) for the natural extensions of the functions. | |
| Jul 30, 2014 at 9:33 | answer | added | Mikhail Katz | timeline score: 25 | |
| Jul 21, 2014 at 18:02 | comment | added | Steven Gubkin | I have heard something along the lines of the following: Cauchy's conception of real numbers included infinitesimals. So for him pointwise convergence included infinitesimal pointwise convergence. In some rigorous sense, this does end up being uniform convergence. I believe this may be true in synthetic differential geometry, for instance. I probably read this in a MO comment somewhere, but I cannot find it. Maybe someone reading this could back up this perspective? | |
| Jul 21, 2014 at 15:50 | answer | added | András Bátkai | timeline score: 17 | |
| Jul 21, 2014 at 14:41 | comment | added | KConrad | See answers or comments by me and Greg Graviton at mathoverflow.net/questions/35468/… | |
| Jul 21, 2014 at 14:31 | history | asked | arjun | CC BY-SA 3.0 |