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Jul 10, 2014 at 14:08 review Close votes
Jul 12, 2014 at 0:03
Jul 10, 2014 at 8:26 comment added user55846 I agree with you, Dag Oskar Madsen. In any case, is it true that $Hom_{R}(E(k),k)=0$? and more general, Is it true that $Ext_{R}^{i}(E(k),k)=0$ for all $i\geq 0$?.
Jul 10, 2014 at 8:09 comment added Dag Oskar Madsen Since $Hom_{D(R)}(E(k),k)=Hom_R(E(k),k)$, this isn't really a question about the derived category.
Jul 10, 2014 at 3:47 review First posts
Jul 10, 2014 at 6:20
Jul 10, 2014 at 3:26 history asked Manuel CC BY-SA 3.0