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Jul 4, 2014 at 11:53 vote accept igor guedz
Jul 3, 2014 at 20:48 answer added Misha Verbitsky timeline score: 3
Jul 3, 2014 at 14:24 comment added igor guedz yes! thak you, i think you're right, because given the resolution of singularities $Hilb^3(T)\rightarrow Sym^3(T)$ we have that generally the fiber on the singular locus is a $\mathbb{P}^1$, so intersecting with $Ker(\alpha)$ we can say $F$ is bimeromorphic to a $\mathbb{P}^1$-bundle on $T$, which of course has $T$ as Albanese variety!
Jul 3, 2014 at 14:17 review First posts
Jul 3, 2014 at 14:41
Jul 3, 2014 at 14:16 comment added Jason Starr Regarding (1),it looks to me like $\Sigma$ is the image of an embedding $T\to \overline{K}^2(T)$ sending $p$ to $2(\underline{-p}) + \underline{2p}$. Also, $F$ seems to be bimeromorphic to a projective space bundle over $\Sigma$. Since the Albanese variety is a bimeromorphic invariant, that would imply that the map from $F$ to $\Sigma$ is (equivalent to) the Albanese morphism for $F$.
Jul 3, 2014 at 14:01 history asked igor guedz CC BY-SA 3.0