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Jun 18, 2014 at 18:57 vote accept CommunityBot
Jul 21, 2014 at 5:20
Jun 18, 2014 at 15:31 answer added Puzzled timeline score: 0
Jun 17, 2014 at 11:45 comment added user5117 Yes to both. 1) is because $-K_Y$ and $-K_X$ have the same section rings (by smallness of $f$); 2) is the so-called Kodaira lemma (big is Q-linearly equivalent to ample+effective).
Jun 17, 2014 at 11:05 history asked user49214 CC BY-SA 3.0