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Jun 14, 2014 at 5:55 answer added user27920 timeline score: 4
Jun 13, 2014 at 14:29 history edited wongpin101 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 13, 2014 at 13:22 comment added wongpin101 @ACL: Yes, I agree that $S$ has to be normal. In that case, a morphism $Spec(F) \rightarrow X$ can be extended to $Spec(S) \rightarrow X$ by Weil's Extension Theorem.
Jun 13, 2014 at 5:33 comment added ACL @wongpin101 (followed). This continues to work if $S$ is the spectrum of a Dedekind ring. In the general case, the morphism of groups $X(S)\to X_F(F)$ is injective but has no reason to be an isomorphism. This is already the case if $S$ is not normal. And if $S$ is normal, a morphism $Spec(F)\to X$ only extends outside of a codimension 2 subset in general.
Jun 13, 2014 at 5:31 comment added ACL @wongpin101: I think you are missing a point in the definition of the specialization map. Let $X/S$ be an abelian scheme, where $S$ is integral, with field of fractions $F$. First assume that $S$ is the spectrum of a DVR. Then the valuative criterion of properness furnishes an isomorphism of groups $X(S) \to X_F(F)$. On the other hand, if $s$ is the special point of $S$, one has a morphism of groups (functoriality) $X(S)\to X_s(\kappa(s))$. These two properties give the specialization morphism $X_F(F)\to X_s(\kappa(s))$.
Jun 12, 2014 at 21:23 comment added wongpin101 I think the point is: what is the group structure on sections $Mor_{Y_0}({Y_0},X)$? If it's defined by $\mu(s_P,s_Q):=\mu \circ (s_P \times s_Q) \circ \delta_{Y_0}$ where $\delta_{Y_0}$ is the diagonal map, in this case, $s_P(y)+s_Q(y)=\mu(s_P,s_Q)(y)$ is by definition and $\mu(s_P,s_Q)=s_{P+Q}$ is not obvious. However, if the definition is $\mu(s_P,s_Q)=s_{P+Q}$, then $s_P(y)+s_Q(y)=\mu(s_P,s_Q)(y)$ is not obvious.
Jun 12, 2014 at 21:22 comment added wongpin101 To Felipe: I believe user52824 gave the answer to 1 by Weil's Extension Theorem if X is an abelian scheme over smooth scheme $Y_0$. Thanks for your answer for 2. But could you explain "$\mu(s_p,s_Q)=s_R$ by definition".
Jun 12, 2014 at 19:11 history edited wongpin101 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 12, 2014 at 17:56 comment added Felipe Voloch If $X$ is an abelian scheme over $Y_0$, then the group law is given by a map $\mu: X\times_Y X \to X$ and if $P+Q=R$ in $X_F(F)$ then $\mu(s_P,s_Q)=s_R$ by definition. So, as long as the specializations at $y$ make sense, $s_P(y)+s_Q(y)=\mu(s_P,s_Q)(y)=s_R(y)$. This answers 2. contingent to 1.
Jun 12, 2014 at 17:45 comment added wongpin101 The case I'm interested in is $X_F$ is an algebraic variety over $F$. Let $Y_0$ be the Zariski open subset of $Y$ such that each fiber $X_y$ is an abelian variety for $y \in Y_0$.
Jun 12, 2014 at 17:36 history edited wongpin101 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 12, 2014 at 17:23 comment added user27920 Are you perhaps just starting with an abelian variety over $F$ and then "spreading out" to an abelian scheme over a smooth dense open subset of $Y$? The algebraic geometry technique in Lang's book is poorly-suited for relative questions in algebraic geometry (though Lang et al. certainly got some mileage out of it before the whole framework was abandoned in the late 1950's).
Jun 12, 2014 at 17:21 comment added user27920 It is not true that $s_P$ is a genuine section in general, so the answer to question 1 is "they're not". But if $X$ is an abelian variety then Weil's Extension Theorem ensures that any rational map to $X$ from a $k$-variety is a morphism. But question 2 makes no sense at all since $X_F$ isn't an $F$-group in general. Perhaps if you provide some context/motivation for your question then it will become apparent how to give useful answers to these questions that are somehow each not well-posed.
Jun 12, 2014 at 15:34 history asked wongpin101 CC BY-SA 3.0