Timeline for Is the set of measurable maps with countable range Borel?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Sep 8, 2014 at 22:19 | vote | accept | François Le Maître | ||
| Sep 8, 2014 at 21:56 | answer | added | François Le Maître | timeline score: 1 | |
| Jun 11, 2014 at 7:23 | comment | added | François Le Maître | Indeed the equality up to measure zero smooths out the complexity, I added a proof of the fact that this set is analytic. | |
| Jun 11, 2014 at 7:16 | history | edited | François Le Maître | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added proof that this set is analytic
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| Jun 11, 2014 at 0:11 | comment | added | Joel David Hamkins | Could you explain your remark about it being analytic? For example, the set of Borel codes for Borel functions $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ with countable range seems to me to be $\Sigma^1_2$. Are you claiming it is actually $\Sigma^1_1$? Or is it the equivalence that smooths out this complexity? | |
| Jun 10, 2014 at 13:36 | review | First posts | |||
| Jun 10, 2014 at 13:37 | |||||
| Jun 10, 2014 at 13:11 | history | asked | François Le Maître | CC BY-SA 3.0 |