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Jun 7, 2014 at 15:53 comment added Carlo Beenakker just take $u=u_b$, so no temperature difference between inside and outside at the boundary; you would hope that that then $du/dn=0$ irrespective of $v$, wouldn't you?
Jun 7, 2014 at 9:03 comment added jokersobak Reasoning against: math.stackexchange.com/questions/822643/…
Jun 7, 2014 at 8:59 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 7, 2014 at 8:56 comment added Carlo Beenakker the two terms $a\frac{\partial u}{\partial n} - \gamma(u-u_b)(\mathbf v \cdot \mathbf n)$ give the total heat transfer across the boundary, due to diffusion (first term) and convection (second term). The boundary condition says that this heat transfer is linearly proportional to the temperature difference at the boundary (Newton's law of heat transfer).
Jun 7, 2014 at 8:51 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 7, 2014 at 6:06 comment added jokersobak In the case $\frac{\partial u}{\partial n} - (\mathbf v \cdot \mathbf n)u + \beta(u - u_b)$ there can be outgoing heat flow due to convective transfer ($\mathbf v$), can't it?
Jun 7, 2014 at 6:02 comment added jokersobak In this case we should impose the condition $\beta \geq (\mathbf v \cdot \mathbf n)$. Why is it so (physically)?
Jun 6, 2014 at 12:02 vote accept jokersobak
Jun 6, 2014 at 11:42 comment added Carlo Beenakker if the temperature $u$ equals the temperature $u_b$ of the surroundings, there can be no outgoing heat flow, or you'd be violating the second law of thermodynamics...
Jun 6, 2014 at 11:26 comment added jokersobak Thank you! This was a typo. I meant the condition $a\dfrac{\partial u}{\partial n} - (\mathbf v \cdot \mathbf n)u + \beta(u - u_b) = 0$. The heat flux is $\mathbf q = -a\nabla u + \mathbf v u$. Why $(\mathbf v \cdot \mathbf n)(u-u_b)$ instead of $(\mathbf v \cdot \mathbf n)u$?
Jun 6, 2014 at 10:39 history answered Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 3.0