Timeline for Implicit function theorem for operator
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| May 30, 2014 at 0:58 | comment | added | Otis Chodosh | I could be wrong, but I think that at this stage, either choice would be fine. I'd guess there is just some reason that the other way is more convenient. | |
| May 30, 2014 at 0:02 | comment | added | Slm2004 | The projection map is still not natural for me. Why we can not project like this way: $\Pi f=\sum_{a\not\in A}\left(\int_Mu_\infty^{\frac{4}{n-2}}\psi_a fd\mu_0\right)\psi_a$, which is the projection with respect to the inner product $()_\infty$? I guess the answer is if we project this way, we get nothing | |
| May 29, 2014 at 23:52 | comment | added | Slm2004 | I have come up this $F$ before, but not as clear as you think. Thank you very much for your explanation. @otis chodosh | |
| May 29, 2014 at 23:49 | vote | accept | Slm2004 | ||
| May 29, 2014 at 23:05 | history | answered | Otis Chodosh | CC BY-SA 3.0 |