Timeline for Is there a better proof of this fact in number theory/formal group theory?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
3 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| May 29, 2014 at 16:05 | comment | added | მამუკა ჯიბლაძე | Right, thanks. Except it is somehow not totally clear to me whether this after all answers the original question... | |
| May 29, 2014 at 16:03 | comment | added | David E Speyer | For $k>n$, its obviously zero and for $k=n$, its obviously $1$. For $k<n$, take $m=k$ to get $0$. | |
| May 29, 2014 at 15:56 | history | answered | მამუკა ჯიბლაძე | CC BY-SA 3.0 |