Skip to main content
5 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Jun 18, 2014 at 9:21 vote accept Simd
May 29, 2014 at 20:42 comment added user21349 @JonPeterson: The fact that these two probabilities are equal is not the same as saying doubling is correct. Some polynomials have both $1$ and $-1$ as roots, so the probability that one or the other is a root is less than double the probability that one is a root. However, as I argued in a comment, the probability that both are roots is small for large $n$.
May 29, 2014 at 16:35 comment added Jon Peterson Note that the probability that 1 is a root is equal to the probability that -1 is a root. This is easily seen by the fact that $P(1)$ and $P(-1)$ have the same distribution since the random coefficients $c_i$ are such that $-c_i$ has the same distribution as $c_i$. This explains why you would double the probability that 1 is a root in your above calculations.
May 28, 2014 at 19:00 history edited user21349 CC BY-SA 3.0
added 14 characters in body
May 28, 2014 at 18:41 history answered user21349 CC BY-SA 3.0