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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:19 history edited CommunityBot
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Jun 18, 2014 at 9:21 vote accept Simd
May 30, 2014 at 5:27 comment added ofer zeitouni @fedja yes it was a typo on my side. And thanks for the argument.
May 30, 2014 at 1:50 comment added fedja @ofer zeitouni Every $d$ consecutive powers of the root are linearly independent over $\mathbb Q$ and for (vector-valued) independent symmetric random variables, we have $P(X+Y=0)\le\sqrt{P(X+X'=0)P(Y+Y'=0)}$, etc. ($Z'$ is an independent copy of $Z$, and I assume that the difference between the formula in you comment and that in mine is just a typo on your side).
May 29, 2014 at 7:18 comment added ofer zeitouni @Fedja, where does the $(1+c/n)^{-d/2}$ estimate come from? Does it hold for $d=d(n)$?
S May 28, 2014 at 19:59 history suggested F. C.
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May 28, 2014 at 19:58 review Suggested edits
S May 28, 2014 at 19:59
May 28, 2014 at 18:41 answer added user21349 timeline score: 16
May 28, 2014 at 18:33 comment added user21349 The question of whether $-1$ is a root of $P$ can be related to the question of whether $1$ is a root of the polynomial $P^*$ whose odd-$i$ coefficients have had their signs flipped. For large $n$, the probability that these two polynomials are distinct gets exponentially close to 1. For large $n$, the probability that both 1 and $-1$ are roots is small, so the probability that $\pm 1$ is a root is double the probability that 1 is a root. So taking into account fedja's comment, we just need to estimate the probability that 1 is a root.
May 28, 2014 at 16:13 comment added Simd @MarcoGolla An asymptotic estimate would be great. Thank you.
May 28, 2014 at 14:36 comment added Marco Golla Are you interested in an asymptotic estimate? In lower/upper bounds? Exact values?
May 28, 2014 at 14:28 answer added user44143 timeline score: 13
May 28, 2014 at 13:52 comment added fedja I do not have time for the full computation now, but let me still note that the probability that $1$ is a root is already of order $n^{-1/2}$ and that the number of cyclotomic polynomials of degree $d$ is at most $e^{Clog d\log\log d}$, so the probability that we have a root of some cyclotomic polynomial of degree $d$ is at most $e^{Clog d\log\log d}(1+c\frac nd)^{-d/2}$), which shows that we do not really need to bother much about anything except $\pm 1$ for large $n$.
May 28, 2014 at 8:32 comment added Marco Golla A somewhat related question: mathoverflow.net/questions/166068/…
May 28, 2014 at 8:07 history asked Simd CC BY-SA 3.0