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Mar 2, 2010 at 16:03 vote accept Peter Tingley
Mar 2, 2010 at 12:22 comment added Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Ah. What I actually had in mind was the statement that a bijective regular morphism $X\to Y$ between irreducible varieties in characteristic zero is biregular if $Y$ is smooth, and I had forgotten about the smoothness hypothesis.
Mar 2, 2010 at 2:29 history edited Pavel Etingof CC BY-SA 2.5
added 64 characters in body; added 69 characters in body
Mar 2, 2010 at 0:15 comment added Bjorn Poonen To avoid confusion, I suggest writing out the correct version of "Mariano's statement" (I am sure he meant to say that the two varieties are the same).
Mar 1, 2010 at 23:27 history answered Pavel Etingof CC BY-SA 2.5