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May 22, 2014 at 22:10 comment added wongpin101 Thank you for the response, I will check out the book that you mentioned. Indeed, I'm interested in the case $g=1$. Could you explain why the morphism $\pi_1$ is flat away from a finite set $J$ of closed points of $\mathbb{P}^2_\bar{\mathbb{Q}}$ instead of $J$ being finite union of curves on $\mathbb{P}^2_\bar{\mathbb{Q}}$? Thanks.
May 22, 2014 at 18:53 history edited Jason Starr CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 22, 2014 at 18:47 history edited Jason Starr CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 22, 2014 at 18:29 history edited Jason Starr CC BY-SA 3.0
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S May 22, 2014 at 17:56 history answered Jason Starr CC BY-SA 3.0
S May 22, 2014 at 17:56 history made wiki Post Made Community Wiki by Jason Starr