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May 21, 2014 at 13:11 comment added Yury If $f$ is defined on $D$, then $0\in\partial f(x)$.
May 21, 2014 at 7:46 comment added martin @Yury Found proof along those lines (edited main post).
May 21, 2014 at 7:45 history edited martin CC BY-SA 3.0
found proof
May 21, 2014 at 7:19 comment added martin @Yury That's the case for unconstrained problems, but in a constrained problem a point may be optimal without $0\in\partial f(x)$, in particular when the constraint is tight. I'm trying to avoid having to compute the subdifferential of $f(x) + \mathbf{I}_D(x)$, where $\mathbf{I}_D(x)\in\{0,\infty\}$ is the usual indicator function.
May 21, 2014 at 3:39 comment added Yury If $f$ attains its minimum at point $x$, then $0\in \partial f(x)$. Condition $v^T (y-x) \geq 0$ holds for $v=0\in \partial f(x)$, as required.
May 21, 2014 at 2:42 history asked martin CC BY-SA 3.0