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Jul 16, 2019 at 20:06 history edited Martin Sleziak
Removed the deprecated (abstract-algebra) tag - see the tag info: https://mathoverflow.net/tags/abstract-algebra/info (if there are some other suitable tags, choose them instead.)
Jul 16, 2019 at 15:17 answer added Sean Lawton timeline score: 7
May 20, 2014 at 17:01 comment added Arturo Magidin @Fernando: Oops... I wonder what I was thinking.
May 20, 2014 at 16:47 vote accept Felix Y.
May 20, 2014 at 16:43 answer added Steven Landsburg timeline score: 30
May 20, 2014 at 16:37 comment added Fernando Muro @ArturoMagidin your $C$ doesn't split as $A\oplus B$.
May 20, 2014 at 16:37 comment added YCor Obviously in the the question homomorphisms are arbitrary, not the canonical ones. The answer is "yes, they're all split" by Landsburg's answer, see the link given by Dag Oskar Madsen.
May 20, 2014 at 16:14 comment added Dag Oskar Madsen See Steven Landsburg's answer to the following question: mathoverflow.net/questions/157938/…
May 20, 2014 at 16:07 comment added YCor @Alberto: that $0\to N\to G\to Q\to 0$ splits means that the map $Q\to G$ lifts the projection $G\to Q$. This can fail with the canonical inclusion.
May 20, 2014 at 15:58 comment added R.P. It isn't stated what the maps are, so it is not clear that that would give a splitting.
May 20, 2014 at 15:44 comment added Alicia Garcia-Raboso What's wrong with the canonical inclusion $B \to A \oplus B$ ?
May 20, 2014 at 15:37 history asked Felix Y. CC BY-SA 3.0