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Aug 1, 2014 at 21:30 vote accept MassiveJack
Jul 27, 2014 at 3:10 answer added Pablo Shmerkin timeline score: 4
May 27, 2014 at 21:29 history edited MassiveJack CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 25, 2014 at 22:14 history edited MassiveJack CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 23, 2014 at 5:30 comment added MassiveJack @Tom Hutchcroft : You're right, you have misunderstood the statement. I claim that there is no time $t$ such that both $t$ and $t+1$ are zeros of $B$.
May 23, 2014 at 0:18 comment added tmh "Not surprisingly, I found that this set is almost surely empty." This isn't true: clearly there are times when $B(t) > B(t+1)$ and times when $B(t)<B(t+1)$, and so the existence of times when $B(t)=B(t+1)$ follows from the intermediate value theorem applied to $B(t)-B(t+1)$. Sorry if I have misinterpreted your original statement.
May 20, 2014 at 0:22 comment added Christian Remling This looks fine to me. Thanks for the clarification.
May 19, 2014 at 23:30 history edited MassiveJack CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 19, 2014 at 6:53 comment added MassiveJack Well, I'm definitely not saying that this is straightforward, but I think I have a proof that the first probability is zero. I will try to post it in a few hours.
May 18, 2014 at 23:46 comment added Christian Remling Is it really clear that your first probability is zero? That definitely works for fixed $t$, but then you have uncountably many $t$ to consider. Or, viewed from another angle, $D(Z)$ is a set of differences of numbers taken from a $\dim$ $1/2$ Cantor set, so it's not clear there can be a quick argument showing this is small ($C-C$ contains an interval).
May 18, 2014 at 21:16 history asked MassiveJack CC BY-SA 3.0