Skip to main content
2 events
when toggle format what by license comment
May 14, 2014 at 0:09 comment added Sridhar Ramesh If I'm reading you correctly, you are saying that for sufficiently large $n$ and $q$, we have that $f(n, q)^{-1}$ is at least a quantity which tends to zero. But surely we need to show $f(n, q)^{-1}$ to be at most a quantity which tends to zero, in order to answer the last question?
May 13, 2014 at 23:24 history answered Greg Martin CC BY-SA 3.0