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May 7, 2014 at 23:51 comment added user9072 This question appears to be off-topic because it is about a linear algebra problem that is not that compleicated in the end, presented without motivation.
May 7, 2014 at 19:38 answer added David E Speyer timeline score: 8
May 7, 2014 at 4:09 comment added Tyler Lawson Condition (0) is equivalent to the characteristic polynomial of the matrix having integer coefficients (one direction is the Cayley-Hamilton theorem, and the other one can see by showing that $\cup A^k \cdot \Bbb Z^n \subset (\tfrac{1}{M}\Bbb Z)^n$ is finitely generated free and changing basis).
May 7, 2014 at 4:09 answer added The Masked Avenger timeline score: 3
May 7, 2014 at 4:08 comment added Gerry Myerson @Steven, I mostly agree with your comment, but it's not that hard to find an example to show the two conditions are not equivalent.
May 7, 2014 at 2:58 review Close votes
May 8, 2014 at 16:11
May 7, 2014 at 2:53 review First posts
May 7, 2014 at 5:08
May 7, 2014 at 2:46 comment added Steven Landsburg I don't understand the votes to close (or the downvote). Is there an easy answer I'm not seeing?
May 7, 2014 at 2:42 comment added David Roberts Is this homework? If so, not on-topic here.
May 7, 2014 at 2:37 history asked user50487 CC BY-SA 3.0