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May 4, 2014 at 21:59 vote accept goblin GONE
May 4, 2014 at 12:42 answer added Goldstern timeline score: 5
May 3, 2014 at 1:16 answer added Monroe Eskew timeline score: 7
May 2, 2014 at 5:49 comment added Andrés E. Caicedo On the other hand, we can have $2^{\aleph_0}=\aleph_1$ and $2^{\aleph_1}=\aleph_{\omega_4}$, but the first assumption already implies (by Shelah's pcf results) that $(\aleph_\omega)^{\aleph_0}<\aleph_{\omega_4}\le 2^{\aleph_\omega}$.
May 2, 2014 at 5:42 comment added Andrés E. Caicedo $\kappa$ cannot be strong limit (which is why $\beth_\omega$ does not have the property).
May 2, 2014 at 5:01 history asked goblin GONE CC BY-SA 3.0