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Mar 4, 2010 at 20:08 vote accept veit79
Feb 26, 2010 at 22:56 comment added Marty I don't think there's an analogy between homotopy groups of spheres and the distribution of primes in any way. Yes, they both yield some numbers which are not very well understood -- but you can't say that any two poorly understood sequences are analogous, just because they're both poorly understood! So I think these questions are not that well-motivated, at least by the middle paragraph above. On the other hand, I too wonder about questions like "what are homotopy groups of spheres good for, outside of the easy and obviously useful cases?"
Feb 26, 2010 at 14:53 answer added Ryan Budney timeline score: 6
Feb 26, 2010 at 10:46 answer added HenrikRüping timeline score: 7
Feb 26, 2010 at 10:01 history asked veit79 CC BY-SA 2.5