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Apr 30, 2014 at 11:22 comment added Pablo Great! It answers my question on the profinite case. Maybe you know what happens if you replace $\mathbb{F}_p$ by $\mathbb{Z}_p$ before applying Pontryagin's duality? What I mean is that I take a finitely generated profinite group $G$, and a profinite $G$-module $V$, which is a power of $\mathbb{Z}_p$. Must there be two nontrivial disjoint $G$-submodules? Your example answers this question in the negative in the $\mathbb{F}_p$ case. Dose the analogous example works for the $\mathbb{Z}_p$ case? Maybe there is another counterexample instead?
Apr 30, 2014 at 9:50 comment added Jeremy Rickard @Pablo: I've edited my answer to add an answer to your question about profinite groups.
Apr 30, 2014 at 9:40 history edited Jeremy Rickard CC BY-SA 3.0
added counterexample for profinite groups
Apr 29, 2014 at 22:08 comment added Marty Isaacs @JeremyRickard Right. Every module over a semisimple algebra is semisimple by a Zorn argument, and that implies that over a semisimple algebra, every nonzero module has a simple quotient. I see now that that does answer the original question using the fact that V/V' is not simple because it is infinite dimensional.
Apr 29, 2014 at 21:08 comment added Jeremy Rickard $V/V'$ is a module for $\mathbb{F}_pG/\operatorname{rad}(\mathbb{F}_pG)$, which is a semisimple algebra, and all modules (even infinitely generated) for semisimple algebras are direct sums of simple modules.
Apr 29, 2014 at 20:59 comment added Benjamin Steinberg Fg is not needed to give that modules over a semisimple ring are direct sums of simples. But I think fg is need to guarantee a maximal proper submodule.
Apr 29, 2014 at 20:52 comment added Marty Isaacs @JeremyRickard I suppose that your assertion that V/V' is semisimple means that it is a direct sum of simples, but I don't see why that holds, even if the radical is trivial. Doesn't proof of semisimplicty require assuming that the module is finitely generated. I don't see why your argument shows that V has a simple quotient or why it answers the original question. Can you explain?
Apr 29, 2014 at 20:15 comment added Jeremy Rickard @BenjaminSteinberg: By projectivity it lifts to a map to $V$. If that map is not an epimorphism and has image $V''$, then $V/V''$ is non-zero and so has a simple quotient, but every map from $V$ to a simple module factors through $V/\operatorname{rad}(V)$.
Apr 29, 2014 at 19:29 comment added Benjamin Steinberg @JeremyRickard, why must an epimorphism from a projective module lift to an epimorphism?
Apr 29, 2014 at 18:49 history edited Jeremy Rickard CC BY-SA 3.0
Tried to make the argument clearer.
Apr 29, 2014 at 18:47 comment added Jeremy Rickard @BenjaminSteinberg: Sorry, I edited the sentence by putting in an explanation in the middle, making it confusing. I meant $V/V'$ is infinite dimensional and semisimple (with an explanation of why it's infinite dimensional in the middle). I'll edit to clarify.
Apr 29, 2014 at 18:42 comment added Benjamin Steinberg I don't follow this. What does "and is semisimple" at the end mean? Projectives need not be semisimple.
Apr 29, 2014 at 17:06 vote accept Pablo
Apr 29, 2014 at 20:48
Apr 29, 2014 at 16:03 comment added Pablo Thanks a lot! Can this be generalized to the case of profinite $G$ somehow (In this case I assume that $V$ is a discrete $G$-module)? I think that I can construct some counterexample in the general case but what if, say, $G$ is finitely generated? Maybe more restrictions should be put on $G$ in order to make this true in the profinite case?
Apr 29, 2014 at 15:50 history answered Jeremy Rickard CC BY-SA 3.0