Timeline for Analogy between Lagrange's Theorem and Rank-Nullity Theorem?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Oct 17, 2020 at 0:49 | comment | added | Mateen Ulhaq | What is a "logarithm"? | |
| Mar 6, 2016 at 21:23 | comment | added | Simone Virili | You are right, let's say that I view an analogy between the two things as long as Lagrange's Theorem is applied to a quotient over a normal subgroup. It is in fact true that the general statement is more subtle, but this difference has no analogy in the category of vector spaces (nor in any abelian category, where every subobject is the kernel of some morphism). | |
| Mar 6, 2016 at 17:00 | comment | added | Joe Silverman | This is all good, but I think that the Lagrange's theorem (in the category of finite groups) is a bit more subtle, because it is more general that there being a homomorphism $M\to N$.. Note that $M/N$ in this context is the set of cosets of $N$, so it's just a set, not a group. | |
| S Mar 6, 2016 at 16:51 | history | suggested | LSpice | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Added links to articles; improved spacing |-| -> \lvert{-}\rvert
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| Mar 6, 2016 at 16:34 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S Mar 6, 2016 at 16:51 | |||||
| Apr 28, 2014 at 9:18 | history | answered | Simone Virili | CC BY-SA 3.0 |