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May 3, 2014 at 20:32 vote accept Felix Goldberg
May 2, 2014 at 16:35 comment added Yoav Kallus @RobertBryant: Sure, but since they only specified the operator norm later, I thought they might be interested in other cases as well.
May 2, 2014 at 15:16 comment added Robert Bryant @YoavKallus: The question you reference uses a different norm on the space of symmetric $n$-by-$n$ matrices, so that discussion really isn't relevant to this question with the operator norm, as specified by the OP.
May 2, 2014 at 11:44 answer added Robert Bryant timeline score: 15
May 1, 2014 at 16:26 comment added Yoav Kallus Have you taken a look at the following question? Looks relevant: mathoverflow.net/questions/118481/…
May 1, 2014 at 15:06 history edited Felix Goldberg CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 1, 2014 at 15:06 comment added Felix Goldberg @Suvrit I want the operator norm, aka $2$-norm.
May 1, 2014 at 15:01 comment added alvarezpaiva Sometime ago I took a look at the paper "The volume of a certain set of matrices" by H. Jack and A. M. Macbeath. Maybe it will be useful. journals.cambridge.org/action/…
Apr 27, 2014 at 14:10 comment added Suvrit I'm presuming the cone is of "real symmetric positive definite" matrices, and the unit sphere that is meant is of the operator norm or perhaps Frobenius norm --- but needs to be clarified.
Apr 27, 2014 at 12:44 comment added Robert Bryant Actually, do you mean to ask this in the symmetric $n$-by-$n$ matrices? Otherwise, I don't know what 'positive definite' means. Also, what (positive definite) norm are you assuming on the symmetric $n$-by-$n$ matrices? One of the ones that is invariant under $\mathrm{SO}(n)$? There is a $2$-parameter family of those, and the answer will depend on which one you choose. There is no such norm that is invariant under the full group $\mathrm{GL}(n,\mathbb{R})$.
Apr 27, 2014 at 8:21 comment added Felix Goldberg @RobertIsrael Sorry, fixed that. <blush>
Apr 27, 2014 at 8:21 history edited Felix Goldberg CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 27, 2014 at 8:15 comment added Robert Israel Please clarify your question. The symmetric $n \times n$ real matrices form a linear space of dimension $n(n+1)/2$. It's certainly not a subset of ${\mathbb R}^n$.
Apr 27, 2014 at 7:54 history asked Felix Goldberg CC BY-SA 3.0