Timeline for How to prove $\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to \infty } \sum\limits_{{f_x}(p) = 1} {\frac{1}{p}} = \ln 2$ for $p \le x$?
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| Apr 11, 2014 at 16:54 | comment | added | Lior Silberman | @Lucia: yes; I must admit I didn't read Stijn's answer beyond the expression "partial summation", assuming he was giving the standard proof. | |
| Apr 11, 2014 at 7:29 | vote | accept | user48365 | ||
| Apr 11, 2014 at 7:29 | |||||
| Apr 10, 2014 at 23:04 | comment | added | Lucia | See my comment above. Note that Stijn's answer implicitly uses the prime number theorem. Mertens's result is of course more elementary. | |
| Apr 10, 2014 at 23:00 | history | answered | Lior Silberman | CC BY-SA 3.0 |