Timeline for How to prove $\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to \infty } \sum\limits_{{f_x}(p) = 1} {\frac{1}{p}} = \ln 2$ for $p \le x$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Apr 11, 2014 at 7:29 | vote | accept | user48365 | ||
| Apr 11, 2014 at 7:29 | vote | accept | user48365 | ||
| Apr 11, 2014 at 7:29 | |||||
| Apr 10, 2014 at 23:00 | answer | added | Lior Silberman | timeline score: 5 | |
| Apr 10, 2014 at 14:19 | review | Close votes | |||
| Apr 21, 2014 at 16:24 | |||||
| Apr 10, 2014 at 14:05 | comment | added | Lucia | This follows at once from $\sum_{p\le x} 1/p= \log \log x + B+O(1/\log x)$ which is an elementary result of Mertens. | |
| Apr 10, 2014 at 13:49 | vote | accept | user48365 | ||
| Apr 11, 2014 at 7:29 | |||||
| Apr 10, 2014 at 13:47 | answer | added | Stijn | timeline score: 6 | |
| Apr 10, 2014 at 13:19 | history | asked | user48365 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |