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Feb 4, 2015 at 23:39 vote accept Ali Taghavi
Apr 7, 2014 at 4:18 history edited Ali Taghavi CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 7, 2014 at 4:13 comment added Ali Taghavi @user36931 However I wrote in the "motivation" "HP_{2} implies holomorphicity", but now I realize that my argument was not complete! What is your reason for "diagonal maps"?(Note that HP2 was that "harmonic maps are invariant under derivation of X" th question is X holomorphic?
Apr 6, 2014 at 14:02 answer added Alexandre Eremenko timeline score: 7
Apr 6, 2014 at 13:26 comment added user36931 By the above i meant property one. I see it if the map is "diagonal" but not if it mixes up the two factors.
Apr 6, 2014 at 13:14 comment added user36931 Why does your property hold for maps C^2 \to C^2 ? Also see mathoverflow.net/questions/93069/….
Apr 6, 2014 at 13:07 history edited Ali Taghavi CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 6, 2014 at 13:01 history edited Ali Taghavi CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 6, 2014 at 12:48 history asked Ali Taghavi CC BY-SA 3.0