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Apr 4, 2014 at 7:45 history edited Jérôme Poineau CC BY-SA 3.0
In the last line, changed $\bar{\mathbb Q} \times \mathbb C$ into $\mathbb Q \times \bar{\mathbb Q}$.
Apr 4, 2014 at 7:43 comment added Jérôme Poineau @SiddharthVenkatesh: You are right, this should work with $\bar{\mathbb Q}$ instead of $\mathbb Q$ (although the ring we get is not explicitly in Harbater's paper). Actually, I have changed the wrong factor and should have written $\mathbb Q \times \bar{\mathbb Q}$ instead of $\bar{\mathbb Q} \times \mathbb C$. I will edit.
Apr 4, 2014 at 2:06 comment added Siddharth Venkatesh That's a cool answer. Why would this not work with $Q$ replaced with $\overline{Q}$? Does the Noetherian property not hold for it?
Apr 3, 2014 at 23:20 comment added Joël Very nice answer.
Apr 3, 2014 at 21:16 history answered Jérôme Poineau CC BY-SA 3.0