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Feb 24, 2010 at 20:07 comment added Joe Fitzsimons The point I was trying to make was that given such a function h, any function of the form $g(h(g^{-1}(x),g^{-1}(y)))$ preserves definiteness, symmetry and associativity, but not necessarily the triangle inequality. So an approach is to pick some h of this form, and then look for a g which will allow you to satisfy the triangle inequality. Handily, g lets us change between, say, multiplication and addition, simply by picking g(x)=exp(x).
Feb 24, 2010 at 19:57 comment added aorq You can find a definite, symmetric, and associative function h by just picking an arbitrary bijection between the non-negative reals and a countable product of (Z mod 2)s. The latter has a natural structure of a group where every element is an involution, so the non-negative reals do as well. The triangle inequality is the hard part here.
Feb 24, 2010 at 19:32 history edited Joe Fitzsimons CC BY-SA 2.5
Generalized approach, and fixed an error.
Feb 24, 2010 at 13:21 comment added Joel David Hamkins By the way, welcome to MO! It is possible to edit your answer, by clicking on 'edit', if you wanted to clarify your idea along the lines of your comment.
Feb 24, 2010 at 5:44 comment added Joe Fitzsimons Good point. Requiring g to be invertible is then too strong a condition. Actually, I hadn't really intended what I wrote. It isn't necessary that g be invertible, but only that for and given x>0, the g(x)=g(y) only for y=x or y=-x. Then g^{-1}(g(x)) is taken to be abs(x), but then its not clear the last bit holds.
Feb 24, 2010 at 5:21 comment added Joel David Hamkins If g is even, how can it be invertible?
Feb 24, 2010 at 5:01 history answered Joe Fitzsimons CC BY-SA 2.5