Timeline for Is this Riemann zeta function product equal to the Fourier transform of the von Mangoldt function?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Apr 4, 2014 at 17:55 | vote | accept | Mats Granvik | ||
Apr 2, 2014 at 18:44 | comment | added | Mats Granvik | I had an error in the summation index. k was meant to be n=scale. scale is just some large number. I might have other errors in here to. I will have a look tomorrow. | |
Apr 2, 2014 at 18:32 | comment | added | GH from MO | I still don't understand what you talk about. The definition of $g(k)$ depends on some quantity "scale", so that quantity should also be part of the argument. But then we talk about finite series, so an exact match with a Riemann zeta-like function is unlikely. Also, there is no $f(t)$ until you define it properly (i.e. you need to show the convergence). I understand that you have some experimental observations, but you should turn it into a precise mathematical question (otherwise it is like asking someone's opinion about a painting or musical piece). | |
Apr 2, 2014 at 18:23 | comment | added | Mats Granvik | I have tried to correct the definitions in the question. $f(t)$ is a function of the imaginary (is that right?) variable $t$. The convergence of $f(t)$ I don't know anything about. What I do know is that by plotting the function for nn = 10, nn = 50, nn = 300, nn = 5000 there isn't much difference in the shape and position of the graph plotted. | |
Apr 2, 2014 at 14:00 | history | answered | GH from MO | CC BY-SA 3.0 |