I've been looking at an example in the non-commutative geometry literature and I'm having trouble figuring out what the classical motivation is. I'll just describe the classical case here: Recall that $\mathbb{CP}^2 = SU(\mathbb{C},3)/U(\mathbb{C},2)$. Recall also that since $T_\mathbb{C}^*(\mathbb{CP}^2)$ can be viewed as a vector bundle associated to the $SU(2)$-bundle $SU(\mathbb{C},3) \to \mathbb{CP}^2$, we can view $\Omega_\mathbb{C}^1(\mathbb{CP}^2)$ as a subset of $\mathcal{O}(\mathbb{CP}^2) \oplus \mathcal{O}(\mathbb{CP}^2)$. Now in the example, the action of each of the Dolbeault operators $\partial,\overline{\partial}$ is given in terms of two mappings, $\partial_1,\partial_2$ and $\overline{\partial_1},\overline{\partial_2}$, such that $$ \partial(f) = (\partial_1(f),\partial_2(f)) \in \mathcal{O}(\mathbb{CP}^2) \oplus \mathcal{O}(\mathbb{CP}^2), $$ and similarly for $\overline{\partial}$. The mappings ${\partial}_i, \overline{\partial}_i$ are constructed using an action of the Lie algebra $\mathfrak{su}(3)$ on $\mathcal{O}(SU(3))$ constructed using the canonical pairing between Lie algebras and coordinate algebras.
I have a feeling this is a complicated incarnation of a simple classical object. Does any of this ring any bells with anyone?
Please ask if you would like more details.
Edit: This question has been superseded by this questionthis question and I am voting to close. I would ask others to do likewise.