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Mar 31, 2014 at 10:05 comment added David Stewart Over fields of characteristic $p$ it isn't true that the all connected abelian groups are products of copies of $G_a$ and $G_m$. You also have Witt groups. See Chapter VII, \S2 of Serre's book Algebraic Groups and Class Fields.
Mar 30, 2014 at 6:50 comment added Jérémy Blanc Yes, I agree with Jason Starr, I still do not understand the details.
Mar 29, 2014 at 11:51 comment added Jason Starr @Aakumadula: It sounds to me like you do indeed have a proof, yet the rest of us do not understand it the way that you explained it. Could you explain the proof carefully in the special case that $G_K$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{G}_{m,K}$?
Mar 29, 2014 at 11:36 comment added Venkataramana @Starr: another thing. The norm map is not like a valuation map. It rarely specializes, at the level of $L^*$ into $k^*$, as a map of $T'(k)$ onto $\mathbb Z$
Mar 29, 2014 at 11:02 comment added Venkataramana @Starr; No, that is not what I am doing. There is a finite kernel map from $T'$ into the anisotropic torus $T$ and a surjection from the anisotropic torus to $R^1({\mathbb G}_m=T'$; this implies that the group of norm one elements (if we assume $G(k)=\mathbb Z$) in $l^*$ is also $\mathbb Z$ up to finite kernel and cokernel; that is impossible.
Mar 29, 2014 at 9:41 comment added Jason Starr @Aakumadula: I guess you are trying to say that the norm map will be a homomorphism from $G(K)$ to $G(k)$, and you are trying to rule this out. However, the group $K^*$ can, indeed, admit homomorphisms to $\mathbb{Z}$, e.g., discrete valuations of $K$ give such homomorphisms.
Mar 29, 2014 at 9:38 comment added Venkataramana @Cornulier, Any such torus maps onto a torus f the form $T'=R^1_{l/k}({\mathbb G}_m$, and contains such an anisotropic torus $T'$. We need only prove it when $T'=T$, and this is really like the case $k^*$ (with a little more work.
Mar 29, 2014 at 7:56 comment added YCor @Aakumadula: could you explain why $T(k)$ can't be infinite cyclic when $T$ is an anisotropic torus? Your argument does not seem to include this case.
Mar 29, 2014 at 7:47 history edited Venkataramana CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 29, 2014 at 7:11 comment added Jérémy Blanc Thanks for having added details. Do you use something like "there is no form of $(\mathbb{G}_a)^n$"? Which assertions on the field do you need for this? What happens for $(\mathbb{G}_a)^n\times (\mathbb{G}_m)^l$ ?
Mar 29, 2014 at 1:30 comment added Venkataramana @Jason,thank you. All I am saying is that over $K$, the group is a product of mult and add groups (not over the smaller field $k$). The group of $k$ rational points, in case add factors are involved, cannot be $\mathbb Z$; in case only mult factors are involved, we will have to use that such a group, after multiplying by a suitable product of $R_{l/k}({\mathbb G }_m$, where $R$ iw thw Weil restriction of scalars.
Mar 28, 2014 at 15:55 comment added Jason Starr @Aakumadula: Explicitly the issue being raised by Jeremy at the end of his first comment is that not every Abelian linear algebraic group over $k$ is of the form an extension of copies of $\mathbb{G}_a$ and copies of $\mathbb{G}_m$.
Mar 28, 2014 at 14:10 history edited Venkataramana CC BY-SA 3.0
edited body
Mar 28, 2014 at 13:58 history edited Venkataramana CC BY-SA 3.0
gave some more detailsof the proof
Mar 28, 2014 at 13:35 comment added Jason Starr @JérémyBlanc: Just to restate: first replace $G$ by the centralizer $Z_G(g)$, and then replace $Z_G(g)$ by its center $Z(Z_G(g))$, which is an Abelian algebraic group that contains $g$.
Mar 28, 2014 at 13:19 comment added Jérémy Blanc I still do not see how one can deduce that $K$ or $K^{*}$ has to be cyclic from the fact that $G$ is abelian. Sorry if this is easy.
Mar 28, 2014 at 13:17 comment added Jérémy Blanc In fact after thinking a bit, I understand now why it is abelian; it follows from the fact that $G$ was replaced with the closure of $G(k)$. The centralizer of an element is closed, so the centralizer of $G(k)$ contains $G$. Then, the intersection of all centralizers of all elements of $G$ is again closed and contains $G(k)$, so $G$ is abelian.
Mar 28, 2014 at 13:03 comment added Jason Starr @Aurel: "how about replacing $G$ with the centralizer of ... $g$" That seems like a good idea, but the centralizer need not be commutative, e.g., for $g$ in the center of $G$, the centralizer of $g$ is all of $G$.
Mar 28, 2014 at 12:53 comment added Aurel For the first part, how about replacing $G$ with the centralizer of a generator $g$ of $G(k)$?
Mar 28, 2014 at 11:42 comment added Jérémy Blanc Thanks for the answer, but I do not get all details. Why is $G$ abelian if $G(k)$ is? Why "the assumptions mean that $K$ or $K^*$ must be $\mathbb{Z}$" ? A priori, I expected that we can have some forms of tori for instance. How do you deal with these?
Mar 28, 2014 at 11:34 history answered Venkataramana CC BY-SA 3.0