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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Oct 24, 2014 at 16:03 answer added Alexander Kuleshov timeline score: 4
Mar 29, 2014 at 22:24 comment added Loïc Teyssier @AlexDegtyarev: I think you were referring to a theorem by Darboux. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Darboux%27s_theorem_%28analysis%29
Mar 29, 2014 at 11:11 history edited Alexander Kuleshov CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted a meaningless statement
Mar 28, 2014 at 8:55 comment added Alex Degtyarev @JoeSilverman The only hope that I see is that the restriction of the Jacobian to a curve is some kind of ordinary derivative. But standard proofs of such things usually assume class $C^1$, so one should go all the way over the proofs to see of they work in the more general setting. Boring :)
Mar 28, 2014 at 8:52 comment added Alex Degtyarev @JoeSilverman This I don't know, as for ordinary derivatives $f'(x)$ there is an intermediate value theorem, even without the assumption that it's continuous. (Don't remember the exact name.) So, the question about the Jacobian may be not as simple as it seems.
Mar 28, 2014 at 1:27 comment added Joe Silverman @AlexDegtyarev Ah, well, if $J_f$ is allowed to be (mildly) discontinuous, then can't one construct a counterexample by taking a standard example of a map $f$ that is differentiable, but not $C^1$.
Mar 27, 2014 at 21:07 comment added Alex Degtyarev @JoeSilverman I guess some people by "differentiable" mean just differentiable, not necessarily $C^1$. Personally, I also disapprove such maps :)
Mar 27, 2014 at 20:45 review First posts
Mar 27, 2014 at 20:48
Mar 27, 2014 at 20:43 comment added Joe Silverman What am I missing? $J_f$ is a continuous function on $\mathbb{R}^N$, so it is continuous when restricted to any continuous curve connecting $a$ to $b$. That curve is just the image of some continuous $\gamma:[0,1]\to\mathbb{R}^N$. So $F=J_f\circ\gamma:[0,1]\to\mathbb{R}$ is continuous and satisfies $F(0)<0$ and $F(1)>0$, so by the intermediate value theorem it must vanish for some value in $(0,1)$.
Mar 27, 2014 at 20:28 history asked Alexander Kuleshov CC BY-SA 3.0